Only when the word is rendered 'gods'-and understood to mean that-does Christ's logic follow.īut, again, can human beings legitimately be referred to as gods, as Jesus said? How are we to understand this? Terminology of family Notice: 'If Scripture called them judges, why are you upset that I claim to be the Son of God?' That makes no sense. But the original New Testament manuscripts translate Christ's quotation in John 10 using the Greek word theoi-'gods.' Indeed, it is obvious that Jesus must have meant 'gods.' If He had meant only 'judges,' His logic would not follow. Some have argued that the word in this context should be translated 'judges' ('mighty ones' being seen by some here as simply powerful human beings). That's because, although plural in form, the word elohim is often singular in usage. In Psalm 82:6, from which Jesus quoted, God says to human beings: 'I said, 'You are gods, and all of you are children of the Most High.'' The Hebrew word translated 'gods' is elohim, which literally means 'gods' or 'mighty ones'-although it is often rendered as 'God' (that is, the true God) in the Bible.

Yet are human beings actually gods? What did He mean? In other words, said Christ, 'if Scripture outright called human beings gods, why are you upset when I merely state that I am God's Son?' His response is intriguing: 'Jesus answered them, 'Is it not written in your law, 'I said, 'You are gods''? If He called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, 'You are blaspheming,' because I said, 'I am the Son of God'?'' (John 10:34-36). In the last article in this series we saw that the Jews of Jesus' day accused Him of blasphemy for claiming to be the Son of God: 'Because You, being a Man, make Yourself God' (John 10:33).

Who we are in christ